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Addressing the idea of heteroglossia, why is poetry generally unable to exhibit heteroglossia? What specifically is the "other speech" in a novel that shows heteroglossia?

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migration rejected from english.stackexchange.com Nov 26 '13 at 23:58

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closed as off-topic by Neil Fein Nov 26 '13 at 23:58

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This is not a question about English but about Literary Theory, so I think it's off-topic. The Wikipedia article on heteroglossia provides an entry into the answer. I'd say it's basically not that epic forms are incapable of it but that historically they arose and died before the kind of multiple registers that Bakhtin is talking about became highly valued. –  StoneyB Nov 26 '13 at 20:06
    
Poetry can be a dialogue. Think only of tragedies and comedies, and of epics. –  Cerberus Nov 26 '13 at 21:01
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Literary theory is not on topic here, unless it specifically relates to writing. Rejecting the migration. –  Neil Fein Nov 26 '13 at 23:55
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To the original writer of this question: If this does relate to a writing project, please feel free to re-ask this question. –  Neil Fein Nov 26 '13 at 23:56
    
This question does not appear to be about writing, copywriting, publishing or editing within the scope defined in the help center. –  Neil Fein Nov 26 '13 at 23:58